Q. No Code Q. No Code Q. No Code Q. No Code
1 b 51 d 101 b 151 b
2 c 52 a 102 c 152 b
3 d 53 a 103 d 153 c
4 b 54 b 104 d 154 b
5 b 55 b 105 b 155 b
6 c 56 a 106 b 156 b
7 a 57 b 107 c 157 d
8 d 58 c 108 c 158 b
9 b 59 d 109 d 159 b
10 a 60 a 110 d 160 b
11 a 61 c 111 b 161 d
12 c 62 d 112 b 162 d
13 d 63 a 113 b 163 c
14 a 64 c 114 c 164 b
15 d 65 b 115 c 165 c
16 b 66 d 116 b 166 c
17 b 67 a 117 d 167 c
18 d 68 b 118 a 168 a
19 c 69 b 119 b 169 d
20 b 70 b 120 b 170 c
21 c 71 b 121 a 171 b
22 c 72 d 122 b 172 b
23 c 73 b 123 b 173 d
24 b 74 b 124 d 174 c
25 c 75 d 125 a 175 a
26 d 76 b 126 c 176 a
27 c 77 c 127 d 177 c
28 b 78 c 128 d 178 b
29 a 79 d 129 d 179 c
30 b 80 a 130 b 180 a
31 b 81 d 131 a 181 a
32 c 82 a 132 b 182 c
33 c 83 d 133 b 183 b
34 b 84 a 134 d 184 c
35 c 85 b 135 c 185 d
36 b 86 c 136 c 186 b
37 d 87 a 137 d 187 d
38 a 88 d 138 c 188 a
39 a 89 c 139 d 189 a
40 c 90 a 140 d 190 d
41 a 91 b 141 c 191 b
42 c 92 d 142 b 192 c
43 a 93 b 143 a 193 b
44 a 94 c 144 d 194 d
45 c 95 d 145 b 195 d
46 b 96 a 146 d 196 b
47 c 97 b 147 d 197 c
48 d 98 b 148 b 198 d
49 d 99 c 149 b 199 b
50 c 100 b 150 c 200 b
Saturday, December 3, 2011
ASST. PUBLIC PROSECUTOR – MOCK EXAM – PAPER I
ASST. PUBLIC PROSECUTOR – MOCK EXAM – PAPER I
1. The offence of the attempt to commit Suicide is
(a) has been declared to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of India
(b) is punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year and fine or both.
(c) is punishable only with fine.
(d) is punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years.
2. In which of the following Case the Delhi High Court has held that “Section 377 IPC, in so far as it criminalizes consensual sexual acts of adults in private, is violative of Article 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India”?
(a) Manu Sharma Vs NCT Delhi
(b) PUCL Vs NCT Delhi
(c) Naz Foundation Vs Government of Delhi
(d) AIDS Control Society Vs Government of Delhi
3. Which one of the following is the date of enforcement of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(a) January 1,1860
(b) July 1 ,1860
(c) January 1,1861
(d) January 1,1862
4. Section 124-A was inserted in the Indian Penal Code by
(a) Act XIX of 1898
(b) Act XXVII of 1870
(c) Act XXI of 1875
(d) Act IX of 1855
5. The benefit of general exceptions must be proved and pleaded by the
(a) Prosecution
(b) Accused
(c) Witness
(d) Court
6. Immovable property can be the subject matter of
(a) Dacoity
(b) Robbery
(c) Extortion
(d) Theft
7. Theft is an offence against movable property when the consent is
(a) Not obtained at all
(b) Obtained by cheating
(c) Obtained by fraud
(d) All of the above
8. Some persons may use the threat and others may receive the property. In such as case, all would be guilty of
(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Extortion
9. X finds a ring belonging to on a table in the house which Z occupies. Here the ring is in Z’s possession and if X dishonestly removes it, A commits
(a) Criminal Misappropriation
(b) Theft
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these.
10. ‘Mc Naughten Rule ‘ is related to
(a) Insanity
(b) Intoxication
(c) Conspiracy
(d) Dying declaration
11. The distinction between culpable homicide and murder is based on:
(a) Exception given in Section 300 of Indian Penal Code
(b) Availability of direct evidence of culpable homicide
(c) Intention or knowledge with respect to death
(d) Availability of direct evidence of murder
12. Persons not qualified as medical practitioners cannot claim the benefit of
(a) Section 85 of IPC
(b) Section 86 pf IPC
(c) Section 88 of IPC
(d) Section 89 of IPC
13. Every person has a right subject to restrictions contained in section 97, to defend
(a) His own body
(b) The body of any person
(c) Property whether movable or immovable
(d) All of the above
14. Abetment by aid requires
(a) Intentional aiding
(b) Passive aiding
(c) Active aiding
(d) All of the above
15. In an attempt to commit murder under S. 307 IPC all the elements of murder exist except
(a) The punishment
(b) The life imprisonment
(c) The death sentence
(d) The fact of death
16. Unlawful assembly is an offence against
(a) The state
(b) public tranquility
(c) Public justice
(d) The property
17. Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing ____
(a) Legally
(b) Dishonestly
(c) Knowingly
(d) Fraudulently
18. X knowingly carries arms in any procession or organises or holds or takes part in mass drill or mass training with arms commits an offence punishable under section
(a) 151A, IPC
(b) 151AA, IPC
(c) 153A, IPC
(d) 153AA, IPC
19. Causing the death of a living child, if any part of that child has been brought forth, though the child may not breathed or been completely born is the offence of ____
(a) Mis-carriage
(b) Murder
(c) Culpable homicide
(d) None of the above
20. The period of Solitary confinement under section 73 may be ordered, if the term of imprisonment exceeds one year
(a) Not exceeding seven months
(b) A time not exceeding three months
(c) For the whole term
(d) Not on time limit
21. Which of the following section inserted as per the Cr.P.C. (Amendment) Act 2005?
(a) 105A
(b) 166 A
(c) 50 A
(d) 433A
22. A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses a commission of a non cognizable offence after investigation shall deemed to be
(a) Police report
(b) Charge sheet
(c) Complaint
(d) Final report
23. A private person can arrest an accused as provided under section
(a) 41
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 44
24. Members of Armed Forces cannot be arrested except after obtaining the consent of
(a) D.G.P.
(b) Central Government
(c) Chief of concerned Army Force
(d) Magistrate
25. In a case involving offence under section 304B, the period of remand under section 167(2) is
(a) 15 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days
26. Under which of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code police can arrest an accused without warrant?
(a) Section 37
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 42
(d) Section 41
27. In appropriate cases the trial court is empowered to stay the proceedings till disposal of civil case relating to the same incident involving section
(a) 210
(b) 482
(c) 309
(d) no such power
28. A Court of Sessions cannot take cognizance of an offence as a Court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it, as provided under
(a) Section 199 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 193 of Cr.P.
(c) c. Section 190 of Cr.P.C.
(d) None of these
29. A Court of Session can take cognizance of the offences under special circumstances mentioned in
(a) Section 199 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 193 of Cr.P.
(c) c. Section 190 of Cr.P.C.
(d) None of these
30. Reports of certain Government scientific experts are admissible, in evidence without any formal proof, under;
(a) Section 294 of CrPC
(b) Section 293 of CrPC
(c) Section 292 of CrPC
(d) Section 291 of CrPC.
31. The personal attendance of the accused can be dispensed with as provided under Sec…………of CR.P.C
(a) 303
(b) 205
(c) 201
(d) 204
32. During inquiry or trial, under section 309 of CrPC Magistrate can remand the accused;
(a) For a period till next date irrespective of days
(b) For a maximum period of 14 days at a time
(c) For a maximum of 15 days at a time
(d) For a maximum of one month at a time
33. Magistrate has the power under section 259 of CrPC to convert a summons trial case into a warrant trial case;
(a) Relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding two years
(b) Relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding one year
(c) Relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding six months
(d) No such limits
34. The Provisions of Section 125;
(a) Repeal the personal laws
(b) Override the personal law
(c) Do not repeal the personal laws
(d) Do not override the personal law
35. Under Section 174, the police shall give immediate information to the;
(a) Judicial Magistrate
(b) Sessions Judge
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) None of the above
36. When the property is not produced before the court pending or during the inquiry or trial, the disposal of property shall be governed by;
(a) Section 451 of CrPC
(b) Section 457 of CrPC
(c) Section 452of CrPC
(d) Section 454 of CrPC.
37. In case of default of payment of compensation under Section 250 by the complainant to the accused, the person ordered to pay compensation;
(a) Shall undergo rigorous imprisonment for 7 days
(b) Shall undergo rigorous imprisonment of 15 days
(c) Shall undergo imprisonment of either nature for 30 days
(d) Shall under go simple imprisonment for a period not exceeding 30 days
38. Which of the following trial shall be held in camera if either party so desires or if the court fit so to do;
(a) A trial under section 199(2)
(b) Every trial in which a women is an accused
(c) Proceedings under section 340 Cr.P.C.
(d) Defamation cases
39. Three Cheques issued by the same accused dishonours and joint notice is sent in respect of all the cheques, in such case;
(a) Single compliant can be filed
(b) 3 separate complaints should be filed
(c) 3 complainants should be filed but can be tried together
(d) None of the above
40. When will proceedings be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so ? MP PCS J -1998
(a) To issue a search warrant under Section 94 of Cr.P.C.
(b) To hold on inquest under Section 176 of Cr.P.
(c) Tries an offender summarily
(d) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
41. The Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution are:
(a) Subject to reasonable restrictions
(b) Absolute
(c) Inalienable
(d) None of the above
42. According to 10th Schedule of the Constitution a member of Lok Sabha can be disqualified on grounds of:
(a) Proven misbehaviour
(b) Lunacy
(c) Defection
(d) None of the above
43. By which amendment did Parliament acquire the right to amend Fundamental Rights?
(a) 24th amendment
(b) 23th amendment
(c) 20th amendment
(d) 22nd amendment
44. The concept of Directive Principles has been borrowed from:
(a) Irish Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) American Constitution
45. One of the Directive Principles is that the State shall introduce free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 13 years
46. Who in empowered to suspend the operation of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) President
(c) The Cabinet
(d) Parliament
47. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended in any proclamation of emergency?
(a) Articles 15, 16
(b) Articles 18, 19
(c) Articles 20, 21
(d) Articles 15, 18
48. Which part of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Preamble
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
49. Political defection is sought to be curbed under which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 49th Constitutional Amendment
(b) 50th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 51st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
50. The Governor of a State nominates to the Legislative Council:
(a) 1/8th of its members
(b) 1/10th of its members
(c) 1/6th of its members
(d) 1/5th of its members
51. The number of the Articles which were amended under the 42nd amendment of the Constitution is:
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 44
(d) 53
52. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by:
(a) The 1st Amendment
(b) The 2nd Amendment
(c) The 8th Amendment
(d) The 11th Amendment
53. The Council of Ministers in the State has been made collectively responsible to the:
(a) State Legislative Assembly
(b) State Legislative Council
(c) The Governor
(d) None of the above
54. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as Scheduled Tribes?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule
55. The election compaign of all political parties and candidates in a constitutency has to end hours before the closing of poll.
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours
(d) 36 hours
56. The special status has been accorded to the State of Jammu and Kashmir under:
(a) Article 370 of the Constitution
(b) Schedule I of the Constitution
(c) A treaty signed between the Union Government and State Government at the time of Accession.
(d) None of the above
57. Ordinance of the Governor has to be passed by the Assembly within:
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 10 weeks
58. Centre-State financial distribution takes place on recommendations by the:
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Sarkaria, Commission
59. A political party is recognised as a national party:
(a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
(b) When it. secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election
(c) If it captures power at least in three States
(d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States.
60. No Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations of the:
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
61. Identification Parade is relevant under section ……… of Evidence Act
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
62. Which of the following chapter in the Evidence Act deals with the examination of witnesses
(a) VII
(b) VIII
(c) IX
(d) X
63. A confession made to an officer invested with the powers under section 53 of NDPS Act
(a) Admissible
(b) Not admissible
(c) Hit by Sec.25 of Evidence Act
(d) None of these
64. The presumption of paternity of child born during subsistence of valid marriage
(a) It is a rebuttable presumption
(b) Irrebuttable presumption
(c) Conclusive presumption
(d) None of these
65. A witness died after chief examination but before cross examination
(a) His evidence is admissible under section 33
(b) Not admissible
(c) Depends on the facts and circumstances of the case
(d) None of these
66. Section 113B presumption is inserted in the Evidence Act in
(a) 1984
(b) 1983
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
67. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant under section ____ of Evidence Act
(a) 13
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 10
68. Previous conviction of a person is relevant under explanation ___ to section 14 of Evidence Act
(a) IV
(b) III
(c) II
(d) I
69. In which of the following cases the constitution bench of the Supreme Court has held that specimen handwriting or signature or finger impression is outside the limit of ‘testimony’?
(a) Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) State of Bombay Vs. Kathikkalu
(c) K.M. Nanavathi Vs. State of Bombay
(d) Nishikand Jha Vs. State
70. The physical impossibility of the presence of the accused at the scene of offence by reason of offence at another place is called
(a) Estoppel
(b) Alibi
(c) Mcnaughten’s Rule
(d) Res gestae
71. The test of ascertaining on which side the burden of proof lies is contained in section ___ of Evidence Act
(a) 103
(b) 102
(c) 101
(d) 100
72. In which of the following cases it was held that Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act is an exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26 ?
(a) Pakala Narain Swamy V/s King Emperor
(b) Inayatullah V/s State of Maharashtra
(c) State of U.P. V/s Deoman Upadhyay
(d) Kotayya V/s King Emperor
73. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, the expert opinion is relevant ?
(a) Section 44
(b) Section 45
(c) Section 46
(d) Section 41
74. “Evidere” means
(a) to show
(b) to show clearly
(c) ascertain
(d) signify
75. A dying declaration can be recorded by
(a) Magistrate
(b) Doctor
(c) Police officer
(d) Any of the above
76. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed to be
(a) documentary evidence
(b) oral evidence
(c) neither not oral or documentary evidence
(d) none of these
77. Admissions operate as _____
(a) More statement
(b) Conclusive proof
(c) Estoppel
(d) None of these
78. An accomplice shall be
(a) Not a competent witness against the accused
(b) A competent witness against the prosecution
(c) A competent witness against an accused person
(d) None of these
79. When can leading questions be asked ?
(a) In cross-examination
(b) In examination in chief with the permission of the court
(c) In re-examination with the permission of the court
(d) In all the above situations
80. Mark the correct statement
(a) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil matters
(b) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in criminal matters
(c) The doctrine of estoppel is applied civil and criminal matters
(d) All the above statements are incorrect
81. Which amendment to the Constitution of India gave precedence to the Directive Principles enumerated in the Constitution over Fundamental Rights?
a) 39th Amendment
(b) 40th Amendment
(c) 41st Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment
82. In the States with bi-cameral legislature, the upper House is known as:
(a) Vidhan Parishad
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Council of States
(d) Council of Representatives
83. The President has the power to appoint and remove
(a) The Attorney General of India
(b) The Governor of a State
(c) Chairman or a member of the Public Service Commission
(d) All of the above
84. Proclamation of Emergency must be submitted to the Parliament for its approval within:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
85. The Chairman of which Committee is usually from the opposition?
(a) Fstimates Committee
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Petitions Committee
(d) Rules Committee
86. The maximum influence on the Constitution of India was exercised by:
(a) The Constitution of U.S.A.
(b) The Constitution of U.K.,
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Constitution of Ireland
87. The seat of a Member of Parliament can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the House without permission fora period of:
(a) 60 days
(b) Two years
(c) Six months
(d) One year
88. A non-member appointed as a Minister must get himself elected as a Member of Parliament within a period of:
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
89. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
(a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto.
90. In order to be officially recognised as Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha, his party should have at-least of the total strength of the House.
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
91. Elections to fill-up one-third seats of Rajya Sabha are held
(a) Every year
(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in five years
(d) Once in six years
92. Which Article under the Directive Principles puts the responsibility to provide free and compulsory primary education on State?
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 45
93. The Constitution of India contains:
(a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
(b) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
(c) 391 Articles and 14 Schedules
(d) 359 Articles and 10 Schedules
94. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in case of
(a) Money Bills.
(b) Non-Money Bills.
(c) Setting up of new all-India services.
(d) Amendment of the Constitution
95. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha
(d) Either House of Parliament
96. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission
97. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Keshavananda Bharati case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) None of the above.
98. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution?
(a) 370
(b) 368
(c) 390
(d) 376
99. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on
(a) Local taxes
(b) Property tax
(c) Government finances
(d) Special taxes
100. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
(a) By the President in consultation with Prime Minister
(b) By the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out of the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose
(c) By the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) By the President
101. In a case triable by a Magistrate as a summons case, the investigation cannot be continued under Section 167(5) of Cr.P.C beyond a period of ……….. from date of arrest of the accused.
(a) one year
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 3 years
102. Who is authorised to order removal of public nuisance?
(a) Judicial Magistrate Ist Class
(b) Judicial Magistrate Und Class
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) Sessions Judge
103. Now under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code what payments per month can be ordered for maintenance?
(a) 50% on the basis of salary of the
(b) Upto Rs. 500
(c) Upto Rs. 3,000
(d) As the Magistrate deems necessary circumstances
104. Under Criminal Procedure Code to what maximum period an accused can be ordered to be kept in police custody by the Magistrate?
(a) Three days
(b) Seven days
(c) Ten days
(d) Fifteen days
105. Which of the provision for demanding security for keeping the peace on conviction?
(a) Section 107
(b) Section 106
(c) Section 99
(d) Section 108
106. A statement of a witness recorded under section 161 of Cr.P.C. in writing during investigation and is signed by the person making the statement is hit by Section ……of CR.P.C
(a) 162(2)
(b) 162(1)
(c) 161(3).
(d) 161(2)
107. The limitation period for filing a complaint under section 199(2) of Cr.P.C. is
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 6 months
(d) no limitation
108. If a complaint is presented before a court having no jurisdiction the magistrate can
(a) Dismiss the complaint for want of jurisdiction
(b) Transfer the case to the proper court
(c) Return the complaint to the complainant for presentation before the proper court
(d) None of the above
109. An inquiry conducted under the Code by a Magistrate or Court is called _____
(a) Trial
(b) Investigation
(c) Arrest
(d) Inquiry
110. For every High Court, Public Prosecutors are appointed by_____
(a) The Minister
(b) The High Court in consultation with the State Government
(c) The Advocate General
(d) The Central Government or the State Government, in consultation with the High Court
111. Monthly allowance or the interim monthly allowance can be altered, as provided
(a) Under section 128 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Under Section 127 of Cr.P.
(c) Under Section 126 of Cr.P.C.
(d) Under Section 125(5) of Cr.P.C
112. A person to be eligible for appointment as a Special Public Prosecutor shall have practiced as Advocate ____
(a) For not less than 8 years
(b) For not less than 10 years
(c) For not less than 5 years
(d) For not less than 7 years
113. Under which of the following sections, the examination of the accused is mandatory;
(a) 313(1)(a)
(b) 313(1)(b)
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
114. Under section 459 of Cr.P.C. the Magistrate may order for the selling of property by the Government, if no claimant appears;
(a) Within three years
(b) Within one year
(c) Within 6 months
(d) Within 3 months
115. Under Section 468 of CrPC the period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term not exceeding one year is;
(a) Three years
(b) Two years
(c) One year
(d) Six months
116. The inherent powers of the High Court are contained in;
(a) Section 492 of CrPC
(b) Section 482 of CrPC
(c) Section 472 of CrPC
(d) Section 462 of CrPC.
117. The word trial is defined in section
(a) 2(g)
(b) 300
(c) 228
(d) Not defined in the Code
118. The Supreme Court has held that a criminal trial can be held in jail and it is not against Section 327 Cr.P.C in
(a) Keharsingh Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) Nalini Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(c) Sanjaydut Vs. CBI
(d) Sahira Sheik Vs. State of Gujarat
119. The review power of criminal court is taken away by Section….of Cr.P.C.
(a) 361
(b) 362
(c) 261
(d) 262
120. In the case of a continuing offence;
(a) No period of limitation
(b) A fresh period of limitation shall begin to run at every moment of the time during which the offence continues
(c) 12 years
(d) None of the above
121. ’A’ threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning ‘B’, unless ‘B’ gives him money. He thus induces ‘B’ to give him money. A has committed
(a) Extortion
(b) Defamation
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Robbery
122. A person will not be liable for any act if he acts in good faith believing himself to be bound by law to do it by reason. This is called
(a) Mistake of fact and law
(b) Mistake of fact
(c) Mistake of law
(d) Mistake of fact or law
123. Which one of the following is not essential, for the offence of affray?
(a) Number of persons is two or more than two
(b) Persons are members of unlawful assembly
(c) Fighting is at public place
(d) Public peace is disturbed
124. For abduction the abducted person should be
(a) Below 16 years of age
(b) Below 18 years of age
(c) Insane person
(d) Of any age
125. The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab is concerned with
(a) Capital punishment in India
(b) Custody of under trial prisoners
(c) Prosecution for attempted suicide
(d) None of the above
126. In connection with the right of a private defense of body give the correct response
(a) This right is not available against an unsound person
(b) This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age
(c) This right is available against any person
(d) This right is not available against parents
127. Which one of the following is not an essential element of Section 34 of Indian Penal Code?
(a) Criminal act done by several persons
(b) Criminal act done in furtherance of a common intention
(c) Pre-arranged plan between persons doing criminal act
(d) Act done in furtherance of common object
128. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
(a) A postal receipt for an insured parcel
(b) A rent note
(c) A promissory note
(d) A deed of divorce
129. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under
(a) Section-376 D, IPC
(b) Section-229, IPC
(c) Section-228, IPC
(d) Section-228A, IPC.
130. Any hurt is ‘grevious’ if it causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during the space to
(a) Fifteen days
(b) Twenty days
(c) Twenty five days
(d) Thirty days
131. Which is not the stolen property?
(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
(c) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity
(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust
132. Constitutional validity of S. 498 A is upheld by the Supreme Court in
(a) Gian Kaur Vs Union of India
(b) Sushil Kumar Sharma Vs Union of India
(c) Rathinam Vs Union of India
(d) None of the above
133. What is the offence, where preparation of offence is also punishable?
(a) Theft
(b) Dacoity
(c) Murder
(d) Rape
134. A cuts down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s possession without B’s consent. A commits.
(a) no offence until the tree is taken away.
(b) the offence of criminal misappropriation of property
(c) the offence of criminal breach of trust,
(d) the offence of theft, as soon as the severance of the tree from the ground is complete.
135. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follow, the offence is
(a) Attempt to murder
(b) Culpable homicide to amounting to murder
(c) Murder
(d) Grievous hurt
136. S.304 B is introduced in Penal code in the year
(a) 1860
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 1973
137. Which one of the following is not an essential element of crime ?
(a) Mens rea
(b) Actus reus
(c) Injury
(d) Motive
138. A person who was not expected to be in office, created a belief that he would be in office and obtained gratification. Which one of the following offences has been, committed by him?
(a) Bribery
(b) Misappropriation
(c) Cheating
(d) None of the above
139. One of the following is not a public servant
(a) Liquidator
(b) A Civil Judge
(c) Member of a Panchayat assisting a court of justice
(d) Secretary of a Co-operative society
140. A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to B with intention thereby causing wrongful loss to B. A has committed—
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Robbery
(d) Mischief
141. What must be the age of a minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping?
(a) Sixteen years
(b) Eighteen years
(c) Under sixteen years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female
(d) Under twenty one years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female
142. ‘Sedition” as the offence in Section 124-A has been characterized comes under Chapter…relating to offences against the State
(a) VIII
(b) VI
(c) V
(d) IV
143. The minimum punishment provided for an offence under Indian penal code is ….imprisonment.
(a) 24 hours
(b) 7 days
(c) 10 days
(d) one month
144. Which of the following is an inchoate Crime?
(a) Conspiracy
(b) Abetment
(c) Criminal force
(d) Attempt
145. Which of the following is a leading case on ‘ mensrea’?
(a) R Vs Huggins
(b) R Vs prince
(c) Birendra Kumar Ghosh vs Emperor
(d) R Vs Baskervillie
146. Which is the provision in the Indian Penal Code which provides that sentence for life imprisonment is for a definite period
(a) Section 23
(b) Section 43
(c) Section 65
(d) No provision
147. In many cases intention and knowledge………each other and mean the same thing more or less and intention can be presumed from knowledge
(a) Coincide with
(b) Deviate from
(c) Separate from
(d) Merge into
148. A…….may be a “person” within the meaning of Section 415 (cheating) and may be “cheated” within the meaning of that section.
(a) Family
(b) Company
(c) Child
(d) Trust
149. Penal statutes must be interpreted
(a) Ejusdem generic
(b) Strictly
(c) Harmoniously
(d) Liberally
150. Section 84 of IPC provides for
(a) Unsoundness of mind of any kind
(b) Moral insanity
(c) Legal insanity
(d) Medical insanity
151. The meaning of the word ‘cruelty’ for the purpose of Sec.113A shall have the same meaning as in
(a) 113B of Evidence Act
(b) 498A of IPC
(c) 304B of IPC
(d) None of these
152. A preliminary examination before the chief examination is suggested in the case of
(a) Defence witnesses
(b) Child witnesses
(c) Expert witnesses
(d) Chance witnesses
153. Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in section ___ of Evidence Act
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
154. Which of the following section was not inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Section-81A
(b) Section-114A
(c) Section-73A
(d) Section-47A
155. Who among the following is an accomplice
(a) Prosecutrix
(b) Briber
(c) Victim in an unnatural offence
(d) All the above
156. The competency of a child witness can be tested by
(a) Evidere test
(b) Voiredire test
(c) Alibi
(d) None of these
157. Which of the following judgments is irrelevant under section 43 of the Evidence Act ?
(a) Judgment of an Insolvency Court
(b) Judgment of a Matrimonial Court
(c) Judgement of a Probate Court
(d) Judgement of a Criminal Court
158. The power of the court to forbid in decent and scandalous questions is provided in section
(a) 150
(b) 151
(c) 152
(d) 153
159. The Indian Evidence Act is enacted in the year
(a) 1888
(b) 1872
(c) 1908
(d) 1973
160. Witness to character may be
(a) Cross examined only
(b) Cross examined and re-examined
(c) Neither cross examined nor re-examined
(d) None of these
161. Photograph of an original is ___ evidence of its contents
(a) Direct
(b) Documentary
(c) Primary
(d) Secondary
162. Which one of the following is not included in the expression ‘Court’ under the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) All judges
(b) All persons legally authorized to take evidence
(c) All Magistrates
(d) Arbitrator.
163. Chapter X of the Evidence Act 1872 deals with
(a) Presumption
(b) Estoppel
(c) The examination of witness
(d) None of these
164. When confession is taken in accordance with law and signed by person duly authorised then the court shall presume
(a) The statement is made voluntarily
(b) That it was duly taken
(c) Conclusive proof
(d) It is not genuine
165. The presumption under section 90 of Evidence Act can be drawn in respect of
(a) Uncertified copies
(b) Certified copies
(c) Original documents
(d) All the above
166. The contents of documents may be proved ____
(a) By primary evidence only
(b) By the existence of relevant facts
(c) By primary or by secondary evidence
(d) None of these
167. Presumption as to the genuineness of gazettes in electronic form has been dealt with under section ___ of Evidence Act
(a) 90A
(b) 88A
(c) 81A
(d) 73A
168. When the curt has to form an opinion as to the digital signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued a digital signature certificate is
(a) A relevant fact
(b) irrelevant
(c) admissible
(d) inadmissible
169. Due execution of a document more than thirty years old coming from proper custody, is a
(a) Presumption of fact and law
(b) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(c) Rebuttable presumption of law
(d) Presumption of fact
170. Which of the following sections in the Evidence Act is based on the ‘necessity rule’
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 33
171. The time limit for disposal of request if it is made to Asst Public Information Officer under the RTI Act is __ days
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 60
172. In case of third party information, within ____ days the third party has to send reply to the written notice of Public Information Officer for disclosure of information, under RTI Act.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 30
173. Under RTI Act, who is authorized to remove State Chief Information Commissioner?
(a) Information Commission
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President of India
(d) Governor of State
174. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 the offence can be tried summarily if it attracts the punishment of Imprisonment not exceeding
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years
175. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, who among the following is authorized to investigate the offence without order or warrant for arrest, in case of Metropolitan areas
(a) Asst Commissioner of Police
(b) Officer Incharge of Police Station
(c) Sub Inspector
(d) Head Constable
176. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, punishment for attempt of criminal misconduct by public servant is
(a) Imprisonment not exceeding 3 years and also liable for fine
(b) Imprisonment not exceeding 2 years and also liable for fine
(c) Imprisonment not exceeding 1 years and also liable for fine
(d) Imprisonment not exceeding 6 months and also liable for fine
177. The Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into effect from
(a) 30th December 1989
(b) 31st December 1989
(c) 30th January 1990
(d) 31st January 1990
178. Under The Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the State Government can specify __________ Court as Special Court to try offences.
(a) High Court
(b) Court of Sessions
(c) Lokpal and Lokayukta
(d) Fast Track Courts
179. Under The Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, Special Public Prosecutor is appointed among the advocates with more than __ years standing.
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 10 years
180. Under AP Town’s Nuisance Act, 1889, ________ directs the destruction of stray dogs.
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Commissioner of Police
(c) Superintendent of Police
(d) Station House Officer of the jurisdiction
181. Information Technology Act, 2000 came into force on
(a) 17th October 2005
(b) 1st April 2001
(c) 1st January 2001
(d) 17th March 2001
182. Under Information Technology Act, 2000, the offence shall be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of
(a) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(b) Asst Commissioner of Police
(c) Inspector of Police
(d) Sub Inspector
183. In which year was the A.P. Forest Act enacted
(a) 1965
(b) 1967
(c) 1969
(d) 1971
184. In A.P Chit Fund Act, 1971, in case of winding up of Chit Fund Company, the aggrieved can appeal in High Court within _____ period of order.
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 years
185. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 id not applicable to the residents of
(a) Manipur
(b) Tripura
(c) Goa
(d) Pondicherry
186. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, the Dowry Prohibition Officers are assisted and advised by Advisory board consisting of
(a) Upto 5 members of which at least 1 is woman
(b) Upto 5 members of which at least 2 are woman
(c) Upto 5 members of which at least 3 are woman
(d) Upto 5 women members
187. The Juvenile Justice (Care & Protection of Children) Act, 2000 came into force on
(a) 1st January 2001
(b) 1st February 2001
(c) 1st March 2001
(d) 1st April 2001
188. The AP Excise Act, 1968 and Rules provide for maximum punishment of
(a) 3 years imprisonment and fine up to 50,000
(b) 3 years imprisonment and fine up to 1,00,000
(c) 5 Years imprisonment and fine up to 50,000
(d) 5 years imprisonment and fine up to 1,00,000
189. Under the Andhra Pradesh (Telengana Area) District Police Act, Chief Officer of the District is
(a) Collector
(b) District Magistrate
(c) Director General of Police
(d) Governor
190. Who among the following can issue orders for Preventive action under Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes (POA) Act.
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Executive Magistarte
(c) Deputy Superintendant of Police
(d) All the above
191. Under the Right to Information Act, Penalty for refusal to furnish information without reasonable reasons is
(a) Rs. 100 each day till information is furnished, up to Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 250 each day till information is furnished, up to Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 500 each day till information is furnished, up to Rs. 50,000
(d) No such punishment is specified under the Act
192. Under the Child Labour (Prohibition) Act, 1986, a child means a person who has not completed the age of
(a) 7 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 18 years
193. The Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee consists of a Chairman and other members not exceeding
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15
194. As per 2008 Amendment of Unlawful Activities ( Prevention) Act, the period of detention in police remand extended to
(a) 48 hours
(b) 7 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
195. Indecent Representation Against Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 was enacted on the grounds of
(a) Article 14 of Indian Constitutional Law
(b) Article 19 of Indian Constitutional Law
(c) Article 21 of Indian Constitutional Law
(d) Article 23 of Indian Constitutional Law
196. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the provisions of Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 does not apply to persons above the age of
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
197. Under Information Technology Act, 2000, the pecuniary jurisdiction of adjucating officers in matters for injury or damage is up to
(a) 1 Crore
(b) 2 Crore
(c) 5 Crore
(d) Unlimited
198. Under AP Protection of Depositories of Financial Establishment Act, 1999, a Financial Establishment does not include
(a) Corporation
(b) Co-operative society controlled by State government
(c) Banking Company
(d) All the above
199. The Protection Officer under the Domestic Violence Act shall be under the control and supervision of
(a) High Court Judge
(b) Magistrate
(c) Service Provider
(d) Special Public Prosecutor
200. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force from
(a) 1st January 1882
(b) 1st March 1882
(c) 1st April 1882
(d) 1st June 1882
1. The offence of the attempt to commit Suicide is
(a) has been declared to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of India
(b) is punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year and fine or both.
(c) is punishable only with fine.
(d) is punishable with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years.
2. In which of the following Case the Delhi High Court has held that “Section 377 IPC, in so far as it criminalizes consensual sexual acts of adults in private, is violative of Article 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India”?
(a) Manu Sharma Vs NCT Delhi
(b) PUCL Vs NCT Delhi
(c) Naz Foundation Vs Government of Delhi
(d) AIDS Control Society Vs Government of Delhi
3. Which one of the following is the date of enforcement of Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(a) January 1,1860
(b) July 1 ,1860
(c) January 1,1861
(d) January 1,1862
4. Section 124-A was inserted in the Indian Penal Code by
(a) Act XIX of 1898
(b) Act XXVII of 1870
(c) Act XXI of 1875
(d) Act IX of 1855
5. The benefit of general exceptions must be proved and pleaded by the
(a) Prosecution
(b) Accused
(c) Witness
(d) Court
6. Immovable property can be the subject matter of
(a) Dacoity
(b) Robbery
(c) Extortion
(d) Theft
7. Theft is an offence against movable property when the consent is
(a) Not obtained at all
(b) Obtained by cheating
(c) Obtained by fraud
(d) All of the above
8. Some persons may use the threat and others may receive the property. In such as case, all would be guilty of
(a) Theft
(b) Robbery
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Extortion
9. X finds a ring belonging to on a table in the house which Z occupies. Here the ring is in Z’s possession and if X dishonestly removes it, A commits
(a) Criminal Misappropriation
(b) Theft
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these.
10. ‘Mc Naughten Rule ‘ is related to
(a) Insanity
(b) Intoxication
(c) Conspiracy
(d) Dying declaration
11. The distinction between culpable homicide and murder is based on:
(a) Exception given in Section 300 of Indian Penal Code
(b) Availability of direct evidence of culpable homicide
(c) Intention or knowledge with respect to death
(d) Availability of direct evidence of murder
12. Persons not qualified as medical practitioners cannot claim the benefit of
(a) Section 85 of IPC
(b) Section 86 pf IPC
(c) Section 88 of IPC
(d) Section 89 of IPC
13. Every person has a right subject to restrictions contained in section 97, to defend
(a) His own body
(b) The body of any person
(c) Property whether movable or immovable
(d) All of the above
14. Abetment by aid requires
(a) Intentional aiding
(b) Passive aiding
(c) Active aiding
(d) All of the above
15. In an attempt to commit murder under S. 307 IPC all the elements of murder exist except
(a) The punishment
(b) The life imprisonment
(c) The death sentence
(d) The fact of death
16. Unlawful assembly is an offence against
(a) The state
(b) public tranquility
(c) Public justice
(d) The property
17. Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing ____
(a) Legally
(b) Dishonestly
(c) Knowingly
(d) Fraudulently
18. X knowingly carries arms in any procession or organises or holds or takes part in mass drill or mass training with arms commits an offence punishable under section
(a) 151A, IPC
(b) 151AA, IPC
(c) 153A, IPC
(d) 153AA, IPC
19. Causing the death of a living child, if any part of that child has been brought forth, though the child may not breathed or been completely born is the offence of ____
(a) Mis-carriage
(b) Murder
(c) Culpable homicide
(d) None of the above
20. The period of Solitary confinement under section 73 may be ordered, if the term of imprisonment exceeds one year
(a) Not exceeding seven months
(b) A time not exceeding three months
(c) For the whole term
(d) Not on time limit
21. Which of the following section inserted as per the Cr.P.C. (Amendment) Act 2005?
(a) 105A
(b) 166 A
(c) 50 A
(d) 433A
22. A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses a commission of a non cognizable offence after investigation shall deemed to be
(a) Police report
(b) Charge sheet
(c) Complaint
(d) Final report
23. A private person can arrest an accused as provided under section
(a) 41
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 44
24. Members of Armed Forces cannot be arrested except after obtaining the consent of
(a) D.G.P.
(b) Central Government
(c) Chief of concerned Army Force
(d) Magistrate
25. In a case involving offence under section 304B, the period of remand under section 167(2) is
(a) 15 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days
26. Under which of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code police can arrest an accused without warrant?
(a) Section 37
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 42
(d) Section 41
27. In appropriate cases the trial court is empowered to stay the proceedings till disposal of civil case relating to the same incident involving section
(a) 210
(b) 482
(c) 309
(d) no such power
28. A Court of Sessions cannot take cognizance of an offence as a Court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it, as provided under
(a) Section 199 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 193 of Cr.P.
(c) c. Section 190 of Cr.P.C.
(d) None of these
29. A Court of Session can take cognizance of the offences under special circumstances mentioned in
(a) Section 199 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 193 of Cr.P.
(c) c. Section 190 of Cr.P.C.
(d) None of these
30. Reports of certain Government scientific experts are admissible, in evidence without any formal proof, under;
(a) Section 294 of CrPC
(b) Section 293 of CrPC
(c) Section 292 of CrPC
(d) Section 291 of CrPC.
31. The personal attendance of the accused can be dispensed with as provided under Sec…………of CR.P.C
(a) 303
(b) 205
(c) 201
(d) 204
32. During inquiry or trial, under section 309 of CrPC Magistrate can remand the accused;
(a) For a period till next date irrespective of days
(b) For a maximum period of 14 days at a time
(c) For a maximum of 15 days at a time
(d) For a maximum of one month at a time
33. Magistrate has the power under section 259 of CrPC to convert a summons trial case into a warrant trial case;
(a) Relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding two years
(b) Relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding one year
(c) Relating to an offence punishable for a term exceeding six months
(d) No such limits
34. The Provisions of Section 125;
(a) Repeal the personal laws
(b) Override the personal law
(c) Do not repeal the personal laws
(d) Do not override the personal law
35. Under Section 174, the police shall give immediate information to the;
(a) Judicial Magistrate
(b) Sessions Judge
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) None of the above
36. When the property is not produced before the court pending or during the inquiry or trial, the disposal of property shall be governed by;
(a) Section 451 of CrPC
(b) Section 457 of CrPC
(c) Section 452of CrPC
(d) Section 454 of CrPC.
37. In case of default of payment of compensation under Section 250 by the complainant to the accused, the person ordered to pay compensation;
(a) Shall undergo rigorous imprisonment for 7 days
(b) Shall undergo rigorous imprisonment of 15 days
(c) Shall undergo imprisonment of either nature for 30 days
(d) Shall under go simple imprisonment for a period not exceeding 30 days
38. Which of the following trial shall be held in camera if either party so desires or if the court fit so to do;
(a) A trial under section 199(2)
(b) Every trial in which a women is an accused
(c) Proceedings under section 340 Cr.P.C.
(d) Defamation cases
39. Three Cheques issued by the same accused dishonours and joint notice is sent in respect of all the cheques, in such case;
(a) Single compliant can be filed
(b) 3 separate complaints should be filed
(c) 3 complainants should be filed but can be tried together
(d) None of the above
40. When will proceedings be vitiated if the Magistrate is not empowered to do so ? MP PCS J -1998
(a) To issue a search warrant under Section 94 of Cr.P.C.
(b) To hold on inquest under Section 176 of Cr.P.
(c) Tries an offender summarily
(d) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
41. The Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution are:
(a) Subject to reasonable restrictions
(b) Absolute
(c) Inalienable
(d) None of the above
42. According to 10th Schedule of the Constitution a member of Lok Sabha can be disqualified on grounds of:
(a) Proven misbehaviour
(b) Lunacy
(c) Defection
(d) None of the above
43. By which amendment did Parliament acquire the right to amend Fundamental Rights?
(a) 24th amendment
(b) 23th amendment
(c) 20th amendment
(d) 22nd amendment
44. The concept of Directive Principles has been borrowed from:
(a) Irish Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) American Constitution
45. One of the Directive Principles is that the State shall introduce free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 13 years
46. Who in empowered to suspend the operation of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) President
(c) The Cabinet
(d) Parliament
47. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended in any proclamation of emergency?
(a) Articles 15, 16
(b) Articles 18, 19
(c) Articles 20, 21
(d) Articles 15, 18
48. Which part of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Preamble
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
49. Political defection is sought to be curbed under which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 49th Constitutional Amendment
(b) 50th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 51st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
50. The Governor of a State nominates to the Legislative Council:
(a) 1/8th of its members
(b) 1/10th of its members
(c) 1/6th of its members
(d) 1/5th of its members
51. The number of the Articles which were amended under the 42nd amendment of the Constitution is:
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 44
(d) 53
52. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by:
(a) The 1st Amendment
(b) The 2nd Amendment
(c) The 8th Amendment
(d) The 11th Amendment
53. The Council of Ministers in the State has been made collectively responsible to the:
(a) State Legislative Assembly
(b) State Legislative Council
(c) The Governor
(d) None of the above
54. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as Scheduled Tribes?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule
55. The election compaign of all political parties and candidates in a constitutency has to end hours before the closing of poll.
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours
(d) 36 hours
56. The special status has been accorded to the State of Jammu and Kashmir under:
(a) Article 370 of the Constitution
(b) Schedule I of the Constitution
(c) A treaty signed between the Union Government and State Government at the time of Accession.
(d) None of the above
57. Ordinance of the Governor has to be passed by the Assembly within:
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 10 weeks
58. Centre-State financial distribution takes place on recommendations by the:
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Sarkaria, Commission
59. A political party is recognised as a national party:
(a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
(b) When it. secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election
(c) If it captures power at least in three States
(d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States.
60. No Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations of the:
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
61. Identification Parade is relevant under section ……… of Evidence Act
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
62. Which of the following chapter in the Evidence Act deals with the examination of witnesses
(a) VII
(b) VIII
(c) IX
(d) X
63. A confession made to an officer invested with the powers under section 53 of NDPS Act
(a) Admissible
(b) Not admissible
(c) Hit by Sec.25 of Evidence Act
(d) None of these
64. The presumption of paternity of child born during subsistence of valid marriage
(a) It is a rebuttable presumption
(b) Irrebuttable presumption
(c) Conclusive presumption
(d) None of these
65. A witness died after chief examination but before cross examination
(a) His evidence is admissible under section 33
(b) Not admissible
(c) Depends on the facts and circumstances of the case
(d) None of these
66. Section 113B presumption is inserted in the Evidence Act in
(a) 1984
(b) 1983
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
67. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant under section ____ of Evidence Act
(a) 13
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 10
68. Previous conviction of a person is relevant under explanation ___ to section 14 of Evidence Act
(a) IV
(b) III
(c) II
(d) I
69. In which of the following cases the constitution bench of the Supreme Court has held that specimen handwriting or signature or finger impression is outside the limit of ‘testimony’?
(a) Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) State of Bombay Vs. Kathikkalu
(c) K.M. Nanavathi Vs. State of Bombay
(d) Nishikand Jha Vs. State
70. The physical impossibility of the presence of the accused at the scene of offence by reason of offence at another place is called
(a) Estoppel
(b) Alibi
(c) Mcnaughten’s Rule
(d) Res gestae
71. The test of ascertaining on which side the burden of proof lies is contained in section ___ of Evidence Act
(a) 103
(b) 102
(c) 101
(d) 100
72. In which of the following cases it was held that Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act is an exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26 ?
(a) Pakala Narain Swamy V/s King Emperor
(b) Inayatullah V/s State of Maharashtra
(c) State of U.P. V/s Deoman Upadhyay
(d) Kotayya V/s King Emperor
73. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, the expert opinion is relevant ?
(a) Section 44
(b) Section 45
(c) Section 46
(d) Section 41
74. “Evidere” means
(a) to show
(b) to show clearly
(c) ascertain
(d) signify
75. A dying declaration can be recorded by
(a) Magistrate
(b) Doctor
(c) Police officer
(d) Any of the above
76. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed to be
(a) documentary evidence
(b) oral evidence
(c) neither not oral or documentary evidence
(d) none of these
77. Admissions operate as _____
(a) More statement
(b) Conclusive proof
(c) Estoppel
(d) None of these
78. An accomplice shall be
(a) Not a competent witness against the accused
(b) A competent witness against the prosecution
(c) A competent witness against an accused person
(d) None of these
79. When can leading questions be asked ?
(a) In cross-examination
(b) In examination in chief with the permission of the court
(c) In re-examination with the permission of the court
(d) In all the above situations
80. Mark the correct statement
(a) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil matters
(b) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in criminal matters
(c) The doctrine of estoppel is applied civil and criminal matters
(d) All the above statements are incorrect
81. Which amendment to the Constitution of India gave precedence to the Directive Principles enumerated in the Constitution over Fundamental Rights?
a) 39th Amendment
(b) 40th Amendment
(c) 41st Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment
82. In the States with bi-cameral legislature, the upper House is known as:
(a) Vidhan Parishad
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Council of States
(d) Council of Representatives
83. The President has the power to appoint and remove
(a) The Attorney General of India
(b) The Governor of a State
(c) Chairman or a member of the Public Service Commission
(d) All of the above
84. Proclamation of Emergency must be submitted to the Parliament for its approval within:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
85. The Chairman of which Committee is usually from the opposition?
(a) Fstimates Committee
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Petitions Committee
(d) Rules Committee
86. The maximum influence on the Constitution of India was exercised by:
(a) The Constitution of U.S.A.
(b) The Constitution of U.K.,
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Constitution of Ireland
87. The seat of a Member of Parliament can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the House without permission fora period of:
(a) 60 days
(b) Two years
(c) Six months
(d) One year
88. A non-member appointed as a Minister must get himself elected as a Member of Parliament within a period of:
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
89. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
(a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto.
90. In order to be officially recognised as Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha, his party should have at-least of the total strength of the House.
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
91. Elections to fill-up one-third seats of Rajya Sabha are held
(a) Every year
(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in five years
(d) Once in six years
92. Which Article under the Directive Principles puts the responsibility to provide free and compulsory primary education on State?
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 45
93. The Constitution of India contains:
(a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
(b) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
(c) 391 Articles and 14 Schedules
(d) 359 Articles and 10 Schedules
94. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in case of
(a) Money Bills.
(b) Non-Money Bills.
(c) Setting up of new all-India services.
(d) Amendment of the Constitution
95. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha
(d) Either House of Parliament
96. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission
97. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Keshavananda Bharati case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) None of the above.
98. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to amend the Constitution?
(a) 370
(b) 368
(c) 390
(d) 376
99. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on
(a) Local taxes
(b) Property tax
(c) Government finances
(d) Special taxes
100. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
(a) By the President in consultation with Prime Minister
(b) By the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out of the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose
(c) By the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) By the President
101. In a case triable by a Magistrate as a summons case, the investigation cannot be continued under Section 167(5) of Cr.P.C beyond a period of ……….. from date of arrest of the accused.
(a) one year
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 3 years
102. Who is authorised to order removal of public nuisance?
(a) Judicial Magistrate Ist Class
(b) Judicial Magistrate Und Class
(c) Executive Magistrate
(d) Sessions Judge
103. Now under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code what payments per month can be ordered for maintenance?
(a) 50% on the basis of salary of the
(b) Upto Rs. 500
(c) Upto Rs. 3,000
(d) As the Magistrate deems necessary circumstances
104. Under Criminal Procedure Code to what maximum period an accused can be ordered to be kept in police custody by the Magistrate?
(a) Three days
(b) Seven days
(c) Ten days
(d) Fifteen days
105. Which of the provision for demanding security for keeping the peace on conviction?
(a) Section 107
(b) Section 106
(c) Section 99
(d) Section 108
106. A statement of a witness recorded under section 161 of Cr.P.C. in writing during investigation and is signed by the person making the statement is hit by Section ……of CR.P.C
(a) 162(2)
(b) 162(1)
(c) 161(3).
(d) 161(2)
107. The limitation period for filing a complaint under section 199(2) of Cr.P.C. is
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 6 months
(d) no limitation
108. If a complaint is presented before a court having no jurisdiction the magistrate can
(a) Dismiss the complaint for want of jurisdiction
(b) Transfer the case to the proper court
(c) Return the complaint to the complainant for presentation before the proper court
(d) None of the above
109. An inquiry conducted under the Code by a Magistrate or Court is called _____
(a) Trial
(b) Investigation
(c) Arrest
(d) Inquiry
110. For every High Court, Public Prosecutors are appointed by_____
(a) The Minister
(b) The High Court in consultation with the State Government
(c) The Advocate General
(d) The Central Government or the State Government, in consultation with the High Court
111. Monthly allowance or the interim monthly allowance can be altered, as provided
(a) Under section 128 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Under Section 127 of Cr.P.
(c) Under Section 126 of Cr.P.C.
(d) Under Section 125(5) of Cr.P.C
112. A person to be eligible for appointment as a Special Public Prosecutor shall have practiced as Advocate ____
(a) For not less than 8 years
(b) For not less than 10 years
(c) For not less than 5 years
(d) For not less than 7 years
113. Under which of the following sections, the examination of the accused is mandatory;
(a) 313(1)(a)
(b) 313(1)(b)
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
114. Under section 459 of Cr.P.C. the Magistrate may order for the selling of property by the Government, if no claimant appears;
(a) Within three years
(b) Within one year
(c) Within 6 months
(d) Within 3 months
115. Under Section 468 of CrPC the period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term not exceeding one year is;
(a) Three years
(b) Two years
(c) One year
(d) Six months
116. The inherent powers of the High Court are contained in;
(a) Section 492 of CrPC
(b) Section 482 of CrPC
(c) Section 472 of CrPC
(d) Section 462 of CrPC.
117. The word trial is defined in section
(a) 2(g)
(b) 300
(c) 228
(d) Not defined in the Code
118. The Supreme Court has held that a criminal trial can be held in jail and it is not against Section 327 Cr.P.C in
(a) Keharsingh Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) Nalini Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(c) Sanjaydut Vs. CBI
(d) Sahira Sheik Vs. State of Gujarat
119. The review power of criminal court is taken away by Section….of Cr.P.C.
(a) 361
(b) 362
(c) 261
(d) 262
120. In the case of a continuing offence;
(a) No period of limitation
(b) A fresh period of limitation shall begin to run at every moment of the time during which the offence continues
(c) 12 years
(d) None of the above
121. ’A’ threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning ‘B’, unless ‘B’ gives him money. He thus induces ‘B’ to give him money. A has committed
(a) Extortion
(b) Defamation
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Robbery
122. A person will not be liable for any act if he acts in good faith believing himself to be bound by law to do it by reason. This is called
(a) Mistake of fact and law
(b) Mistake of fact
(c) Mistake of law
(d) Mistake of fact or law
123. Which one of the following is not essential, for the offence of affray?
(a) Number of persons is two or more than two
(b) Persons are members of unlawful assembly
(c) Fighting is at public place
(d) Public peace is disturbed
124. For abduction the abducted person should be
(a) Below 16 years of age
(b) Below 18 years of age
(c) Insane person
(d) Of any age
125. The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab is concerned with
(a) Capital punishment in India
(b) Custody of under trial prisoners
(c) Prosecution for attempted suicide
(d) None of the above
126. In connection with the right of a private defense of body give the correct response
(a) This right is not available against an unsound person
(b) This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age
(c) This right is available against any person
(d) This right is not available against parents
127. Which one of the following is not an essential element of Section 34 of Indian Penal Code?
(a) Criminal act done by several persons
(b) Criminal act done in furtherance of a common intention
(c) Pre-arranged plan between persons doing criminal act
(d) Act done in furtherance of common object
128. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?
(a) A postal receipt for an insured parcel
(b) A rent note
(c) A promissory note
(d) A deed of divorce
129. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under
(a) Section-376 D, IPC
(b) Section-229, IPC
(c) Section-228, IPC
(d) Section-228A, IPC.
130. Any hurt is ‘grevious’ if it causes the sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits during the space to
(a) Fifteen days
(b) Twenty days
(c) Twenty five days
(d) Thirty days
131. Which is not the stolen property?
(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
(c) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity
(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust
132. Constitutional validity of S. 498 A is upheld by the Supreme Court in
(a) Gian Kaur Vs Union of India
(b) Sushil Kumar Sharma Vs Union of India
(c) Rathinam Vs Union of India
(d) None of the above
133. What is the offence, where preparation of offence is also punishable?
(a) Theft
(b) Dacoity
(c) Murder
(d) Rape
134. A cuts down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s possession without B’s consent. A commits.
(a) no offence until the tree is taken away.
(b) the offence of criminal misappropriation of property
(c) the offence of criminal breach of trust,
(d) the offence of theft, as soon as the severance of the tree from the ground is complete.
135. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follow, the offence is
(a) Attempt to murder
(b) Culpable homicide to amounting to murder
(c) Murder
(d) Grievous hurt
136. S.304 B is introduced in Penal code in the year
(a) 1860
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 1973
137. Which one of the following is not an essential element of crime ?
(a) Mens rea
(b) Actus reus
(c) Injury
(d) Motive
138. A person who was not expected to be in office, created a belief that he would be in office and obtained gratification. Which one of the following offences has been, committed by him?
(a) Bribery
(b) Misappropriation
(c) Cheating
(d) None of the above
139. One of the following is not a public servant
(a) Liquidator
(b) A Civil Judge
(c) Member of a Panchayat assisting a court of justice
(d) Secretary of a Co-operative society
140. A voluntarily throws into a river a ring belonging to B with intention thereby causing wrongful loss to B. A has committed—
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Robbery
(d) Mischief
141. What must be the age of a minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping?
(a) Sixteen years
(b) Eighteen years
(c) Under sixteen years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female
(d) Under twenty one years of age, if a male, and under eighteen years of age, if a female
142. ‘Sedition” as the offence in Section 124-A has been characterized comes under Chapter…relating to offences against the State
(a) VIII
(b) VI
(c) V
(d) IV
143. The minimum punishment provided for an offence under Indian penal code is ….imprisonment.
(a) 24 hours
(b) 7 days
(c) 10 days
(d) one month
144. Which of the following is an inchoate Crime?
(a) Conspiracy
(b) Abetment
(c) Criminal force
(d) Attempt
145. Which of the following is a leading case on ‘ mensrea’?
(a) R Vs Huggins
(b) R Vs prince
(c) Birendra Kumar Ghosh vs Emperor
(d) R Vs Baskervillie
146. Which is the provision in the Indian Penal Code which provides that sentence for life imprisonment is for a definite period
(a) Section 23
(b) Section 43
(c) Section 65
(d) No provision
147. In many cases intention and knowledge………each other and mean the same thing more or less and intention can be presumed from knowledge
(a) Coincide with
(b) Deviate from
(c) Separate from
(d) Merge into
148. A…….may be a “person” within the meaning of Section 415 (cheating) and may be “cheated” within the meaning of that section.
(a) Family
(b) Company
(c) Child
(d) Trust
149. Penal statutes must be interpreted
(a) Ejusdem generic
(b) Strictly
(c) Harmoniously
(d) Liberally
150. Section 84 of IPC provides for
(a) Unsoundness of mind of any kind
(b) Moral insanity
(c) Legal insanity
(d) Medical insanity
151. The meaning of the word ‘cruelty’ for the purpose of Sec.113A shall have the same meaning as in
(a) 113B of Evidence Act
(b) 498A of IPC
(c) 304B of IPC
(d) None of these
152. A preliminary examination before the chief examination is suggested in the case of
(a) Defence witnesses
(b) Child witnesses
(c) Expert witnesses
(d) Chance witnesses
153. Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in section ___ of Evidence Act
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
154. Which of the following section was not inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Section-81A
(b) Section-114A
(c) Section-73A
(d) Section-47A
155. Who among the following is an accomplice
(a) Prosecutrix
(b) Briber
(c) Victim in an unnatural offence
(d) All the above
156. The competency of a child witness can be tested by
(a) Evidere test
(b) Voiredire test
(c) Alibi
(d) None of these
157. Which of the following judgments is irrelevant under section 43 of the Evidence Act ?
(a) Judgment of an Insolvency Court
(b) Judgment of a Matrimonial Court
(c) Judgement of a Probate Court
(d) Judgement of a Criminal Court
158. The power of the court to forbid in decent and scandalous questions is provided in section
(a) 150
(b) 151
(c) 152
(d) 153
159. The Indian Evidence Act is enacted in the year
(a) 1888
(b) 1872
(c) 1908
(d) 1973
160. Witness to character may be
(a) Cross examined only
(b) Cross examined and re-examined
(c) Neither cross examined nor re-examined
(d) None of these
161. Photograph of an original is ___ evidence of its contents
(a) Direct
(b) Documentary
(c) Primary
(d) Secondary
162. Which one of the following is not included in the expression ‘Court’ under the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) All judges
(b) All persons legally authorized to take evidence
(c) All Magistrates
(d) Arbitrator.
163. Chapter X of the Evidence Act 1872 deals with
(a) Presumption
(b) Estoppel
(c) The examination of witness
(d) None of these
164. When confession is taken in accordance with law and signed by person duly authorised then the court shall presume
(a) The statement is made voluntarily
(b) That it was duly taken
(c) Conclusive proof
(d) It is not genuine
165. The presumption under section 90 of Evidence Act can be drawn in respect of
(a) Uncertified copies
(b) Certified copies
(c) Original documents
(d) All the above
166. The contents of documents may be proved ____
(a) By primary evidence only
(b) By the existence of relevant facts
(c) By primary or by secondary evidence
(d) None of these
167. Presumption as to the genuineness of gazettes in electronic form has been dealt with under section ___ of Evidence Act
(a) 90A
(b) 88A
(c) 81A
(d) 73A
168. When the curt has to form an opinion as to the digital signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued a digital signature certificate is
(a) A relevant fact
(b) irrelevant
(c) admissible
(d) inadmissible
169. Due execution of a document more than thirty years old coming from proper custody, is a
(a) Presumption of fact and law
(b) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(c) Rebuttable presumption of law
(d) Presumption of fact
170. Which of the following sections in the Evidence Act is based on the ‘necessity rule’
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 33
171. The time limit for disposal of request if it is made to Asst Public Information Officer under the RTI Act is __ days
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 60
172. In case of third party information, within ____ days the third party has to send reply to the written notice of Public Information Officer for disclosure of information, under RTI Act.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 30
173. Under RTI Act, who is authorized to remove State Chief Information Commissioner?
(a) Information Commission
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President of India
(d) Governor of State
174. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 the offence can be tried summarily if it attracts the punishment of Imprisonment not exceeding
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years
175. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, who among the following is authorized to investigate the offence without order or warrant for arrest, in case of Metropolitan areas
(a) Asst Commissioner of Police
(b) Officer Incharge of Police Station
(c) Sub Inspector
(d) Head Constable
176. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, punishment for attempt of criminal misconduct by public servant is
(a) Imprisonment not exceeding 3 years and also liable for fine
(b) Imprisonment not exceeding 2 years and also liable for fine
(c) Imprisonment not exceeding 1 years and also liable for fine
(d) Imprisonment not exceeding 6 months and also liable for fine
177. The Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into effect from
(a) 30th December 1989
(b) 31st December 1989
(c) 30th January 1990
(d) 31st January 1990
178. Under The Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the State Government can specify __________ Court as Special Court to try offences.
(a) High Court
(b) Court of Sessions
(c) Lokpal and Lokayukta
(d) Fast Track Courts
179. Under The Schedule Castes & Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, Special Public Prosecutor is appointed among the advocates with more than __ years standing.
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 10 years
180. Under AP Town’s Nuisance Act, 1889, ________ directs the destruction of stray dogs.
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Commissioner of Police
(c) Superintendent of Police
(d) Station House Officer of the jurisdiction
181. Information Technology Act, 2000 came into force on
(a) 17th October 2005
(b) 1st April 2001
(c) 1st January 2001
(d) 17th March 2001
182. Under Information Technology Act, 2000, the offence shall be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of
(a) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(b) Asst Commissioner of Police
(c) Inspector of Police
(d) Sub Inspector
183. In which year was the A.P. Forest Act enacted
(a) 1965
(b) 1967
(c) 1969
(d) 1971
184. In A.P Chit Fund Act, 1971, in case of winding up of Chit Fund Company, the aggrieved can appeal in High Court within _____ period of order.
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 years
185. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 id not applicable to the residents of
(a) Manipur
(b) Tripura
(c) Goa
(d) Pondicherry
186. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, the Dowry Prohibition Officers are assisted and advised by Advisory board consisting of
(a) Upto 5 members of which at least 1 is woman
(b) Upto 5 members of which at least 2 are woman
(c) Upto 5 members of which at least 3 are woman
(d) Upto 5 women members
187. The Juvenile Justice (Care & Protection of Children) Act, 2000 came into force on
(a) 1st January 2001
(b) 1st February 2001
(c) 1st March 2001
(d) 1st April 2001
188. The AP Excise Act, 1968 and Rules provide for maximum punishment of
(a) 3 years imprisonment and fine up to 50,000
(b) 3 years imprisonment and fine up to 1,00,000
(c) 5 Years imprisonment and fine up to 50,000
(d) 5 years imprisonment and fine up to 1,00,000
189. Under the Andhra Pradesh (Telengana Area) District Police Act, Chief Officer of the District is
(a) Collector
(b) District Magistrate
(c) Director General of Police
(d) Governor
190. Who among the following can issue orders for Preventive action under Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes (POA) Act.
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Executive Magistarte
(c) Deputy Superintendant of Police
(d) All the above
191. Under the Right to Information Act, Penalty for refusal to furnish information without reasonable reasons is
(a) Rs. 100 each day till information is furnished, up to Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 250 each day till information is furnished, up to Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 500 each day till information is furnished, up to Rs. 50,000
(d) No such punishment is specified under the Act
192. Under the Child Labour (Prohibition) Act, 1986, a child means a person who has not completed the age of
(a) 7 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 18 years
193. The Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee consists of a Chairman and other members not exceeding
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15
194. As per 2008 Amendment of Unlawful Activities ( Prevention) Act, the period of detention in police remand extended to
(a) 48 hours
(b) 7 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
195. Indecent Representation Against Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 was enacted on the grounds of
(a) Article 14 of Indian Constitutional Law
(b) Article 19 of Indian Constitutional Law
(c) Article 21 of Indian Constitutional Law
(d) Article 23 of Indian Constitutional Law
196. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the provisions of Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 does not apply to persons above the age of
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
197. Under Information Technology Act, 2000, the pecuniary jurisdiction of adjucating officers in matters for injury or damage is up to
(a) 1 Crore
(b) 2 Crore
(c) 5 Crore
(d) Unlimited
198. Under AP Protection of Depositories of Financial Establishment Act, 1999, a Financial Establishment does not include
(a) Corporation
(b) Co-operative society controlled by State government
(c) Banking Company
(d) All the above
199. The Protection Officer under the Domestic Violence Act shall be under the control and supervision of
(a) High Court Judge
(b) Magistrate
(c) Service Provider
(d) Special Public Prosecutor
200. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force from
(a) 1st January 1882
(b) 1st March 1882
(c) 1st April 1882
(d) 1st June 1882
Saturday, November 12, 2011
Preparation for Addl/Asst Public Prosecutor Exam
This blog is created for aspirants of Addl/Asst Public Prosecutor. This blog will help you in preparing for exam with regard to Syllabus, Important areas, Previous question papers and Model Papers.
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